equivalence of functional dependencies
From: shannon <shannon_at_nolunchmeat.com>
Date: Tue, 06 Jan 2004 00:27:43 +0100
Message-ID: <btcrsd$m1u$04$1_at_news.t-online.com>
FD has been bugging me for a month now,
Date: Tue, 06 Jan 2004 00:27:43 +0100
Message-ID: <btcrsd$m1u$04$1_at_news.t-online.com>
FD has been bugging me for a month now,
F = {A -> BC, A -> D, CD -> E}
G = {A -> BCE, A -> ABD, CD -> E}
I have been told that the sets of functional dependencies above are
equivalent, can anybody explain to me how I can come to this conclusion
step by step,
I understand that armstrong's axioms are used to come to the conclusion, I have seen these axioms written down,
please use another example if you are in fear of doing 'homework'
thx
Shannon Received on Tue Jan 06 2004 - 00:27:43 CET