Re: equivalence of functional dependencies

From: Bob Badour <bbadour_at_golden.net>
Date: Tue, 6 Jan 2004 03:09:23 -0500
Message-ID: <qNidnSkUi4fS8GeiRVn-jQ_at_golden.net>


"shannon" <shannon_at_nolunchmeat.com> wrote in message news:btcrsd$m1u$04$1_at_news.t-online.com...
> FD has been bugging me for a month now,
>
> F = {A -> BC, A -> D, CD -> E}
> G = {A -> BCE, A -> ABD, CD -> E}
>
> I have been told that the sets of functional dependencies above are
> equivalent, can anybody explain to me how I can come to this conclusion
> step by step,
>
> I understand that armstrong's axioms are used to come to the conclusion,
> I have seen these axioms written down,
>
> please use another example if you are in fear of doing 'homework'

As a general method, consider transforming each of the sets to some canonical form. Received on Tue Jan 06 2004 - 09:09:23 CET

Original text of this message