Re: Idempotence and "Replication Insensitivity" are equivalent ?
From: <pamelafluente_at_libero.it>
Date: 19 Sep 2006 09:27:31 -0700
Message-ID: <1158683251.209564.306560_at_i3g2000cwc.googlegroups.com>
Date: 19 Sep 2006 09:27:31 -0700
Message-ID: <1158683251.209564.306560_at_i3g2000cwc.googlegroups.com>
Chris Smith ha scritto:
>
> Actually, f(0,0)=0 and f(1,1)=1, so actually f is idempotent. The value
> of f(0,1) is not relevant to idempotence.
You are absolutely right.
I got mixed up on that ... will try again :)
> >
> > f is "duplication insensitive".
>
> Yes, it certainly is.
>
> --
> Chris Smith
Received on Tue Sep 19 2006 - 18:27:31 CEST