Re: A Normalization Question
From: mAsterdam <mAsterdam_at_vrijdag.org>
Date: Mon, 26 Jul 2004 19:17:53 +0200
Message-ID: <41053cc2$0$65124$e4fe514c_at_news.xs4all.nl>
>>If it isn't mindblowing (an I am not contending it is), why is
>>everyone else in this thread up in arm about normalizing down to level
>>of logical symbols?
>
> Because only an idiot would try to "normalize" down to individual letters.
Date: Mon, 26 Jul 2004 19:17:53 +0200
Message-ID: <41053cc2$0$65124$e4fe514c_at_news.xs4all.nl>
Tony wrote:
> (Neo) wrote:
>>If it isn't mindblowing (an I am not contending it is), why is
>>everyone else in this thread up in arm about normalizing down to level
>>of logical symbols?
>
> Because only an idiot would try to "normalize" down to individual letters.
I disagree. Anybody critical of concepts would (or did) try to do so to get a good grasp of "normalize". (in my view: to discover that individual latin letters convey part of a *sound*, not part of a *meaning*, but I am digressing).
If this trial makes you an idiot, than I have to confess: so am I.
After the OO bashing, the flat-relational-bashing we now see Neo-bashing as a passtime. I don't like it. Received on Mon Jul 26 2004 - 19:17:53 CEST