Translating constraints to RM Terms
From: Kenneth Downs <knode.wants.this_at_see.sigblock>
Date: Sun, 05 Jun 2005 12:51:55 -0400
Message-Id: <ianbn2-dj5.ln1_at_pluto.downsfam.net>
I'm wondering if some RM theorist might express something for me.
Date: Sun, 05 Jun 2005 12:51:55 -0400
Message-Id: <ianbn2-dj5.ln1_at_pluto.downsfam.net>
I'm wondering if some RM theorist might express something for me.
For instance, A is actually a domain, as is B, but the constraint A < B must in fact be part of the very definition of the domain A, and here we are defining one domain in terms of another. I realized I have not seen this
disccussed in the year or so I have been a regular here. Is defining one domain in terms of another allowed and considered trivial, no big deal? Is it actually not allowed and this is some SQL alteration of true RM?-- Kenneth Downs Secure Data Software, Inc. (Ken)nneth_at_(Sec)ure(Dat)a(.com)Received on Sun Jun 05 2005 - 18:51:55 CEST