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Re: 1 NF

From: mAsterdam <mAsterdam_at_vrijdag.org>
Date: Thu, 01 Mar 2007 19:59:48 +0100
Message-ID: <45e72237$0$336$e4fe514c@news.xs4all.nl>


frebe wrote:
> I read an interview with Chris Date
> ( http://www.dbmsmag.com/int9410.html )
> which made me a little bit confused. He claims that
> having an array as a column values doesn't violates 1NF. Is this the
> common opinion at comp.databases.theory too?

Yes, I think it is.

> If yes, how is it possible at apply 1NF at all, in that case?

Distinguish between the whole of the array as a value and the individual elements. These individual elements are considered to be invisible. Received on Thu Mar 01 2007 - 12:59:48 CST

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