Re: 1 NF
Date: Thu, 01 Mar 2007 11:10:00 -0800
"Alfredo Novoa" <alfredono_at_gmail.com> wrote:
>On 28 feb, 20:14, "frebe" <freb..._at_gmail.com> wrote:
>> I read an interview with Chris Date (http://www.dbmsmag.com/
>> int9410.html) which made me a little bit confused. He claims that
>> having an array as a column values doesn't violates 1NF. Is this the
>> common opinion at comp.databases.theory too?
>It seems that is not very common but it is my opinion too.
>> If yes, how is it
>> possible at apply 1NF at all, in that case?
>1NF is irrelevant because any relation is in 1NF by definition.
It is relevant for precisely that reason. It sets a precondition.
Computerese Irregular Verb Conjugation:
I have preferences. You have biases. He/She has prejudices.Received on Thu Mar 01 2007 - 20:10:00 CET