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Re: 1 NF

From: Gene Wirchenko <genew_at_ocis.net>
Date: Thu, 01 Mar 2007 11:10:00 -0800
Message-ID: <o69eu29clce3kndb2vs8g8hl46m2e6c9ms@4ax.com>


"Alfredo Novoa" <alfredono_at_gmail.com> wrote:

>On 28 feb, 20:14, "frebe" <freb..._at_gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> I read an interview with Chris Date (http://www.dbmsmag.com/
>> int9410.html) which made me a little bit confused. He claims that
>> having an array as a column values doesn't violates 1NF. Is this the
>> common opinion at comp.databases.theory too?
>
>It seems that is not very common but it is my opinion too.
>
>> If yes, how is it
>> possible at apply 1NF at all, in that case?
>
>1NF is irrelevant because any relation is in 1NF by definition.

     It is relevant for precisely that reason. It sets a precondition.

[snip]

Sincerely,

Gene Wirchenko

Computerese Irregular Verb Conjugation:

     I have preferences.
     You have biases.
     He/She has prejudices.
Received on Thu Mar 01 2007 - 13:10:00 CST

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