Re: Idempotence and "Replication Insensitivity" are equivalent ?

Chris Smith ha scritto:
>
> Actually, f(0,0)=0 and f(1,1)=1, so actually f is idempotent. The value
> of f(0,1) is not relevant to idempotence.

You are absolutely right.

I got mixed up on that ... will try again :)

> >
> > f is "duplication insensitive".
>
> Yes, it certainly is.
>
> --
> Chris Smith
Received on Tue Sep 19 2006 - 11:27:31 CDT