Re: "Armstrong's axioms" augmentation - help plz
From: Jan Hidders <jan.hidders_at_REMOVETHIS.pandora.be>
Date: Tue, 08 Mar 2005 20:51:41 GMT
Message-ID: <xfoXd.33031$3b7.3199075_at_phobos.telenet-ops.be>
>> The first rule implies the second as you pointed out, but the second
>> cannot stand in for the first as the implication goes only one
>> direction (from the first rule to the second and not from the second
>> statement of a rule to the first).
Date: Tue, 08 Mar 2005 20:51:41 GMT
Message-ID: <xfoXd.33031$3b7.3199075_at_phobos.telenet-ops.be>
paul c wrote:
> Dawn M. Wolthuis wrote:
>> "paul c" <toledobythesea_at_oohay.moc> wrote in message
>> news:n99Xd.599930$Xk.252349_at_pd7tw3no...
>>> Jan Hidders wrote: >>>> love boat via DBMonster.com wrote: >>>> >>>>> I understand the Augmentation rule: >>>>> { X -> Y } |= XZ -> YZ >>>>> >>>>> but I don't understand why the rule can also be stated as: >>>>> >>>>> { X -> Y } |= XZ -> Y >>>>> >>>>> Why is this? >>>> >>>> It cannot. If you replace the first rule with the second you will >>>> not derive all FDs that hold. >>> >>> The first 'rule' is X -> Y, and so is the second! What's the >>> difference? >>
>> The first rule implies the second as you pointed out, but the second
>> cannot stand in for the first as the implication goes only one
>> direction (from the first rule to the second and not from the second
>> statement of a rule to the first).
>> > are you really saying that before the answer can get smaller, it has to > get larger? (LOL)
- Jan Hidders