Re: By The Dawn's Normal Light
From: Laconic2 <laconic2_at_comcast.net>
Date: Sun, 24 Oct 2004 09:56:45 -0400
Message-ID: <SqidnbRl2KA1KebcRVn-sw_at_comcast.com>
Date: Sun, 24 Oct 2004 09:56:45 -0400
Message-ID: <SqidnbRl2KA1KebcRVn-sw_at_comcast.com>
"Alfredo Novoa" <anovoa_at_ncs.es> wrote in message news:725mn0ljhdnjbmqjvqke337evgt0qu4ds7_at_4ax.com...
> They agreed with it after they defined 1NF properly.
A little while ago, when I asked about "correct" definitions, Marshall suggested that there is no such thing as "correct" with regard to a definition. Do you agree with Marshall's comment? I'm not asking about my paraphrase of it here.
Can you tell me what you mean by "properly"? It is the same as or different from "Correctly"? "Usefully"? Received on Sun Oct 24 2004 - 15:56:45 CEST