Re: ?? Functional Dependency Question ??
Date: Tue, 21 Oct 2008 10:36:34 -0700 (PDT)
Message-ID: <ebea1e27-03c1-4155-99c0-323082ad9d44_at_b38g2000prf.googlegroups.com>
On Oct 22, 12:45 am, paul c <toledobythe..._at_oohay.ac> wrote:
> David BL wrote:
> > On Oct 21, 11:54 pm, paul c <toledobythe..._at_oohay.ac> wrote:
> >> David BL wrote:
>
> >> ...
>
> >>> Consider that in the FD world symbol X represents a set of attributes
> >>> from some relation R. Let some tuple of R be given. Then as a
> >>> proposition we interpret X as implying that we are given or can deduce
> >>> (for the given tuple) the values of all the attributes associated with
> >>> X. This interpretation makes it obvious that unions of attributes
> >>> map to logical conjunctions, and that an FD maps to a logical
> >>> implication.
> >> Thanks, but how does that interpretation work when R has no attributes?
>
> > What’s the problem? If there are no attributes then the only FD we
> > can state is
>
> > {} -> {}
>
> > which is an example of a trivial FD (because rhs is a subset of the
> > lhs). In the propositional calculus this maps to
>
> > true -> true.
>
> > The empty set of attributes (union identity) maps to true (conjunctive
> > identity).
>
> Okay, but isn't this changing the original mapping which was from VALUES
> of attributes?