Re: Idempotence and "Replication Insensitivity" are equivalent ?
Date: 21 Sep 2006 08:36:34 -0700
Message-ID: <1158852994.195700.314820_at_i42g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>
Chris Smith ha scritto:
An idempotent function can certainly be
> evaluated with unequal arguments.
of course, my meaning for the first part of the argument was different. I was trying to suggest some intuition. Did not expand fully. I try to explain the intuitive part:
for an idempotent / assoc / comm function we have
f( 4 3 3 3 3) = f( 4 f(3 3 3 3) ) = f(4 3)
but adding another 4 and using the above result
f( 4 4 3 3 3 3) = f( 4 f( 4 3 3 3 3) ) = f ( 4 f(4 3) )
In general, f(4 3) and f ( 4 f(4 3) ) can be different.
For a duplication insensitive function this cannot happen.
Therefore I meant
f( 4 3 3 3 3) = f( 4 4 3 3 3 3) holds for duplication insensitive
f( 4 3 3 3 3) = f( 4 4 3 3 3 3) may not hold for idempotence
Therefore
duplication insensitivity does not imply idempotent (n>3)
Make sense?
-P
> Chris Smith
Received on Thu Sep 21 2006 - 17:36:34 CEST