Re: Can we solve this -- NFNF and non-1NF at Loggerheads
Date: Wed, 9 Feb 2005 11:58:06 -0000
Message-ID: <7_mdnXc6xJzQZpTfRVn-tQ_at_pipex.net>
"Alan" <not.me_at_rcn.com> wrote in message
news:36mrv7F52lmo2U1_at_individual.net...
>
> "Roy Hann" <specially_at_processed.almost.meat> wrote in message
> news:9LCdna8B3LW2VJjfRVn-rg_at_pipex.net...
> > "Alfredo Novoa" <alfredo_novoa_at_hotmail.com> wrote in message
> > news:h6da01hfpdq3f6fg384g5l0t5dd7dd1std_at_4ax.com...
> > > On Fri, 4 Feb 2005 13:37:17 -0500, "Alan" <alan_at_erols.com> wrote:
> > >
> > > >Nothing has changed.
> > >
> > > It has changed, but it seems that you are not aware of that.
> > >
> > > > 1NF means (and has always meant) that all values are
> > > >atomic (simple, indivisible)
> > >
> > > Atomic is not a precise word. We can not base any precise definition
> > > on that term.
> >
> > Alan is confused, but your comment, erudite though it is, is irrelevant.
> >
> > 1NF does not "mean values are simple or indivisible".
>
> Well, then Elmasri and Navathe are confused, as I quoted directly from the
> book (which is used in many leading universities).
> I am not the one who is confused. You just redefined "atomic" as meaning
> "divisible".
> It Codd intended 1NF to include divisible attributes, he would
> have used the word "divisible", not "atomic".
Roy Received on Wed Feb 09 2005 - 12:58:06 CET