Re: The naive test for equality

On Thu, 11 Aug 2005 22:19:08 -0400, "VC" <boston103_at_hotmail.com> wrote:

[snip]

>Of course not. Why would one want to use the same name for two different
>entities [self-inflicted pain] ? If imagination is lacking, and one prefers

     It can happen when two different points-of-view intersect. Realising that two apparently different entities are actually the same can be tricky, especially when they appear at first to be different.

     On the other side, realising that you are dealing not with identitites but distinct things -- particularly when the entities are similar -- can also be tricky.

>to call an entity a Thing, one can use at least Thing1, Thing2,,, ad
>infinitum., if needed., in order to avoid the homonym problem. Synonyms
>are even easier, just use one, not two or more, names for the same entity
>and you should be all set.

     If you realise that you have such a situation.

[snip]

Sincerely,

Gene Wirchenko Received on Fri Aug 12 2005 - 19:52:29 CEST