In article <1120336537.052835.142450_at_o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com>,
mikharakiri_nospaum_at_yahoo.com says...
> Why? Consider functions of multiple variables. Function f(x)=sin(x) is
> equivalent to function f(x,y)=sin(x)*1(y), where 1(y) is constant
> function evaluating to 1.
Well, yes. What I meant to question was the sense in doing so (i.e.
expressing a function in terms of irrelevant arguments). I would also
question the definition of this equivalence since one function has two
arguments and the other one. But never mind.
--
Jon
Received on Sun Jul 03 2005 - 07:29:07 CDT
