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Home -> Community -> Usenet -> comp.databases.theory -> Re: A Normalization Question
On Mon, 12 Jul 2004 13:28:42 -0700, Neo wrote:
>> Let's consider a small example. We take a relation R(A,B,C) with a >> functional dependency A->B. Now consider the following instance: >> >> A B C >> --------- >> 1 2 3 >> 1 2 4
Sure, you can represent it that way, even in the relational model, but you cannot call it normalization because normalization deals with removing logical redundancies and there were no logical redundancies in the original relation to begin with. I know you keep on denying this but that's what the definition of logical redundancy says.
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