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Does 1NF makes sense?

From: Juan Pardillos <sicotom_at_eresmas.com>
Date: 14 Nov 2002 13:27:45 -0800
Message-ID: <6278687.0211141327.4c392406_at_posting.google.com> 





Hi,



I'd like to know what is the sense of defining the first normal form
(1NF), given that any relation is in 1NF. Perhaps some historical
reason?.



Thanks in advance
Received on Thu Nov 14 2002 - 22:27:45 CET












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