Re: Can a Table be Invalidated?

In message <1121525398.588417_at_yasure>, DA Morgan <damorgan_at_psoug.org> writes
>Jim Smith wrote:
>> In message <1121485479.831008_at_yasure>, DA Morgan <damorgan_at_psoug.org>
>>writes
>>
>>> Jim Smith wrote:
>>>
>>>> Would a table which contained an object type whose code wouldn't
>>>>compile be classed as invalid?
>>>
>>>
>>> Why are you asking us to tell you the answer to something you could
>>> determine yourself in 15-20 seconds?
>> Why are you so obnoxious? If you have nothing useful to say, shut
>>up.
>
>There is a reason why when you do the following:
>
>desc user_tables
>
>you don't see a STATUS column.
>
>

Good point. You could have said that instead of your typical "how dare you post to this group in ways I don't like" response.

>SQL> CREATE OR REPLACE TYPE CourseList AS TABLE OF VARCHAR2(90000);
> 2 /
>CREATE OR REPLACE TYPE CourseList AS TABLE OF VARCHAR2(90000);
>*
>ERROR at line 1:
>ORA-02303: cannot drop or replace a type with type or table dependents

Not sure this entirely answers my question. If you have an object type with code attached and somewhere down the code dependency tree a procedure becomes invalid, what happens? Or does 2303 imply you can't change the procedure because a table depends on it?

I suppose I need to go and investigate. And then never tell anyone because they can always find out for themselves.

>
>
>Because you can not do it.

>
>I was not trying to be obnoxious.

You don't have to try, for some people it seems to come naturally

> I was trying to point out that in
>10-15 seconds anyone with any amount of curiousity could have answered
>the question.

As I said in my followup, I wasn't that interested.

-- 
Jim Smith
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