Re: Same name for two tables

Hi, Kenneth.

I agree, our situations are different. I understand how tables can have 'same name' in different schemas, and that that is okay. I also understand (now) that Table_Name <> TABLE_NAME <> table_name.

I was just wondering about the point of a 'table_id' that is non-unique, when applsys.fnd_tables contains no reference to 'schema' or 'owner'. I'm sure there's something that makes it work; I just don't know what (yet).

Chris

Kenneth C Stahl wrote:

> That isn't quite the same situation that the other person described. Since you used
> fully qualified references to the same exact table all you really did was a self
> join and the results you received were consistant with a self-join.
>
> I think that the other person was referring to two tables that have the same name
> but are in different schemas.
>
> Ken
>
> Chris Nelson wrote:
>
> > I have noticed a similar conundrum in Oracle Manufacturing. I ran the following
> > query once when I noticed what seemed to be an impossibility: two different
> > table_name values with the same table_id in applsys.fnd_tables.
> >
> > select a.table_name
> > , a.table_id
> > , b.table_name
> > , b.table_id
> > from applsys.fnd_tables a
> > , applsys.fnd_tables b
> > where a.table_id = b.table_id
> > and a.table_name <> b.table_name
> > /
> >
> > I came up with 92 rows in the results ! In other words, it's not so impossible
> > as I thought: there are 46 pairs of 'different' table_name that share the same
> > table_id.
> >
> > I'd like to know 'how !?!' even before I find out 'why ?'.
> >
Received on Fri Jun 25 1999 - 00:21:33 CDT