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RE: to_number question

From: <Stephen.Lee_at_DTAG.Com>
Date: Fri, 16 Jul 2004 02:59:11 -0500
Message-ID: <D6339830FC73944E889CC3CEADDB205B07909534@bu-dtagpo1.tracs.com>


> -----Original Message-----
> Actually the subquery gets converted to a sql that has two predicates
> grouped by "AND" (similar to yours).

Well OK. I've kept my mouth shut so far, and because I was getting some good info, I did not argue with the accusations that I "don't understand". But I think it's time to clarify some things.

I DO understand 100%, and (if I may be so bold as to speak for others) those who have questioned the so-called logic understood 100%.

Yes. I'm very well aware that my SQL was essentially getting broken into two predicates and THEN the un-guaranteed order in the evaluation of predicates gets applied. The people who argued that this should not be the case understood it too. The comments were an expression of disbelief (not lack of understanding) that the specifications concerning subqueries would be so loose and open ended as to allow this level of unpredictability. Clearly, that is the case. But that doesn't mean we can't bitch about it. And bitching about it doesn't mean we don't understand it. You bitch about taxes, don't you?



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Received on Fri Jul 16 2004 - 02:55:59 CDT

Original text of this message

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