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RE: to_number question

From: <Stephen.Lee_at_DTAG.Com>
Date: Wed, 14 Jul 2004 21:37:54 -0500
Message-ID: <D6339830FC73944E889CC3CEADDB205B0790951A@bu-dtagpo1.tracs.com>


> -----Original Message-----
> Maybe it has something to do how optimizer transforms your
> query

I'm thinking that this is probably the case. The table DOES have entries that will break to_number; but the output of the subquery does not. It looks like the WHERE clause might be operating on the table rather the result of the subquery. That was one reason I used the subquery: I know the output from it will be only numeric. I didn't (and don't) want to have to worry about which part of the WHERE clause gets evaluated first: The "where nbr_cc_fop_name in ('AX','MC','VI','DS') part"; or the to_number biz. I figured if I did the subquery thing, then all the to_number stuff would HAVE to work. This sure does look like a "feature" to me (at a list price of $40,000 per CPU). Either that, or there are some fine points of SQL and subqueries I haven't understood yet. By the way, it never made any difference if I did the to_number functions inside the subquery or in the WHERE clause.



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Received on Wed Jul 14 2004 - 21:34:39 CDT

Original text of this message

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