Re: Constraints and Functional Dependencies
Date: Sun, 25 Feb 2007 18:40:09 +0100
Message-ID: <45e1c97f$0$333$e4fe514c_at_news.xs4all.nl>
Keith H Duggar wrote:
> mAsterdam wrote:
>> A rephrase to (i) could be: >> >> <reference> >> (i a) >> A relation R with attribute a (written as R(a)) having >> a as a reference into S(b) >> is expressed as follows: >> >> forall R(a): exists S(b): a = b >> >> Note that b need not be a ck to S, hence 'into', not 'to'. >> </reference>
>
> Does Marshall's notation S(b) mean that relation S has only
> one attribute b?
In the OP Marshall wrote:
> With such a system, a relation R with
> attribute a (which I will write as R(a))
where he could have written
> With such a system, a relation R with > *only* attribute a (which I will write as R(a))
if he'd wanted R(a) to denote a relation with only one attribute a. Marshall knows; ask him.
If you read the subsequent discussion you'll agree that it cannot be assumed that b must be S's only attribute.
> If so then b is necessarily a ck (in fact the only key).
> If S(b) is actually a shorthand notation for
> S(b,b0...bn) then one can express that b is a ck by:
>
> forall b: exists c0,...cn: forall b0...bn:
> S(b,b0...bn): b0 = c0 ... bn = cn
>
> Correct?
In Marshall's notation that would be
{b} -> {b0,...bn} =def=
forall S(b, b0,...bn): forall S(b, b0'...bn'): b=b' => b0 = b0' ... bn = bn'
I think.
This is just how I understood it.
To be sure you shouldn't ask me.
Received on Sun Feb 25 2007 - 18:40:09 CET