Perhaps an idiotic question
Date: Thu, 30 Nov 2006 00:37:59 GMT
But it perplexes me even though I admit I have no good reason for asking:
If I declare a relation (or more properly a relvar) R to have an attribute A where A's type is the type of R am I declaring a fallacy or something that is logically possible (ignoring whether it has any use)?
p Received on Thu Nov 30 2006 - 01:37:59 CET