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Re: Idempotence and "Replication Insensitivity" are equivalent ?

From: vc <boston103_at_hotmail.com>
Date: 24 Sep 2006 20:47:38 -0700
Message-ID: <1159156058.309727.113180@h48g2000cwc.googlegroups.com>

Chris Smith wrote:
> vc <boston103_at_hotmail.com> wrote:
> > In the case when any point in [0..1] can be a median, both the
> > absolute deviation minimizing property and the more traditional
> > definition would yield the same result which means that the OP (Pamela)
> > was right and her opponent wrong:
>
> I'll just point out that something's gone seriously wrong when
> participants in a supposedly rational discussion start talking about
> "opponent"s.
> So we've got a discussion going where neither party seems
> eager to establish any kind of willingness to hold an earnest
> converation.

What specific comments of substance I've made with respect to the {0, 1} median example /definition do you disagree with ? Are also of the opinion that the OP was wrong ? If so, could you show where exactly she was wrong when she mentioned the median minimizing property ?

>
> --
> Chris Smith
Received on Sun Sep 24 2006 - 22:47:38 CDT

Original text of this message

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