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Home -> Community -> Usenet -> comp.databases.theory -> Re: A statement on dbdebunk.
kvnkrkptrck_at_gmail.com wrote:
> Keith H Duggar wrote: >
> > Shouldn't that be, "He seems to say that there logical elements to > which no conceptual elements map."?
No. He had it right.
>>>And the fact that some kind of isomorphism between two
>>>things can be found, implies that any quality or property
>>>that holds/exists/is proven for either of the things
>>>mapped, necessarily also holds/exists for the other thing
>>>mapped.
>>>
>>>So if model X has the property of being formal in some
>>>sense, and model Y is in some way isomorphic to model X,
>>>then it necessarily follows that model Y is also formal in
>>>that same sense as model X is formal .
>>>
>>>So the statements quoted here, seem contradictory to me,
>>>if not quackery.
>>>
>>>Anyone care to correct me on this, or comment in any other
>>>way?
>>
>>You assumed isomorphism and reached a contradiction. Your
>>premise was simply false. At least it appears so given the
>>excerpt.
>>
>>Does this clear it up or am I missing something too?
>>
>>-- Keith -- Fraud 6
>
> To (hopefully) clarify: Consider the set of conceptual elements C =
> {C1, C2, C3} and logical elements L = {L1, L2, L3, L4}. The following
> mapping from C to L is a 1-to-1 mapping:
> {C1, L1}, {C2, L2}, {C3, L4}
> yet, it is not ONTO and certainly doesn't establish isomorphism.
Except that formal logic is a subset of what man conceives. Received on Mon Aug 21 2006 - 16:13:28 CDT
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