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Home -> Community -> Usenet -> comp.databases.theory -> Re: A statement on dbdebunk.
Keith H Duggar wrote:
> Frank Hamersley wrote:
>> anithsen_at_gmail.com wrote: >>> Erwin wrote: >>>> anithsen_at_gmail.com wrote: >>>> >>>> How can it at the same time be true that model X is >>>> formal, model Y is in some way isomorphic to model X, >>>> and yet model Y is *IN*formal, i.e. very specifically >>>> *NOT* formal ? >>> It looks like you gave undue importance to the usage >>> "1:1 mapping" which he seems to merely mean >>> "corresponding" and went on to consider two distinct >>> levels of representation to be somehow isomorphic. >> If so that's pretty sloppy use of the term coming from >> someone who has never been shy to lambast others for >> similar offenses.
Pray tell how you reached this stunning conclusion! I'm all eyes!
Regards, Frank. Received on Sun Aug 20 2006 - 01:04:01 CDT
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