Re: Can relvars be dissymetrically decomposed? (vadim and x insight demanded on that subject)
From: Tony D <tonyisyourpal_at_netscape.net>
Date: 17 Jul 2006 16:23:21 -0700
Message-ID: <1153178601.299279.231960_at_75g2000cwc.googlegroups.com>
Date: 17 Jul 2006 16:23:21 -0700
Message-ID: <1153178601.299279.231960_at_75g2000cwc.googlegroups.com>
Tony D wrote:
> But R1 isn't a type - it *has* a type, but it isn't a type itself. The
> *type* of R1 would constitute a new domain, as that would describe
> which relation values could be considered to be of that type.
>
To go back to the much earlier example in the thread, R1 isn't a type, but DoR1 would be. Received on Tue Jul 18 2006 - 01:23:21 CEST