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Home -> Community -> Usenet -> comp.databases.theory -> Re: OO versus RDB
Responding to Frebe73...
>>>>>If the semantics of the old column "salary" are the same as the new >>>>>column "baseSalary", why on earth would you need to change the name? If >>>>>the name is not changed, no existing SQL statements would break. Only >>>>>the applications that needs the new "burdenedSalary", would need to be >>>>>rewritten. >>>> >>>>To capture the correct semantics of the attribute. In a context where >>>>one must distinguish between different flavors of salary, the original >>>>name was poorly chosen and the DBA fixed that. The attribute name is >>>>supposed to reflect the attribute semantics. Not changing it just leads >>>>to opportunities for new applications to screw up later. >>> >>> >>>Nothing forces you to change the column name. The solution will work >>>with the old name. Would you change the name of the corresponding >>>object property too, and break the interfaces? I don't think so. >>>Changing column names is not a relevant motivation for decoupling SQL >>>statements. >> >>As I said, you are missing the point. The example was of the sort of >>change that can break queries even though the accessed attribute >>semantics was unchanged.
The original name did not properly capture the semantics. That became obvious when burdenedSalary was added.
>>Why one would make such a change is not >>particularly relevant,
No, what I am saying is that schemas change for reasons that are not relevant to particular applications.
>>though ensuring proper semantics for attributer >>names is a valid reason (albeit often not a strong one compared to other >>trade-offs like breaking existing applications).
I said, "proper semantics for attribute names". The name is not the attribute itself, but it should be consistent. The attribute's semantics was unchanged vis a vis the value it contained.
H. S. Lahman
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Received on Sun Jul 02 2006 - 10:26:10 CDT
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