Re: Example of expression bias?

From: paul c <toledobythesea_at_oohay.ac>
Date: Wed, 21 Jun 2006 02:27:52 GMT
Message-ID: <I82mg.70548$IK3.35349_at_pd7tw1no>


Tony D wrote:
> J M Davitt wrote:

>> CJD calls them type constraints; they define the set of values
>> that constitute the type.  Types are named, so the sets are named.
>>
>> The only thing I'd argue about in Cimode's definition is that
>> operators are part of the data type.  In fact, D+D make the point
>> that the declaration of operators is orthogonal to the declaration
>> of types -- given that the types are extant before the operators.
>>

>
> The issue I had with the long-form of Cimode's definition is that he
> takes domains to be separate from types; IIRC, to Cimode, domains are
> sets of all possible values, and a given type restricts which of the
> possible values from the domain are acceptable for that type (I'm sure
> he'll correct me if I have misrepresented his position in any way). I
> stuck with the type simply defining the acceptable values either
> explicitly by enumeration or by equations to describe the set. I'm open
> to convincing, but at the moment I'm not. (I have an argument that says
> a particular value belongs to a single type only, but that might kick
> off and it's now 3:20am, so I'm off to bed :)
>

okay, the only thing i'd ask is that you add the apostrophe to c'mode. that way the same notorious handle can be pronounced in all the english-speaking timezones whose occupants have never been able to agree on the pronunciation of vowels. he or she needs to be kept mythical to protect the naive among us.

p Received on Wed Jun 21 2006 - 04:27:52 CEST

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