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Re: OT fallacies

From: x <x_at_not-exists.org>
Date: Mon, 12 Jun 2006 16:36:28 +0300
Message-ID: <e6jqdv$jlq$1@nntp.aioe.org>

"Robert Martin" <unclebob_at_objectmentor.com> wrote in message news:2006061118475122503-unclebob_at_objectmentorcom...
> On 2006-06-05 08:57:32 +0200, "x" <x_at_not-exists.org> said:
>
> >
> > "Keith H Duggar" <duggar_at_alum.mit.edu> wrote in message
> > news:1149329417.570950.135550_at_u72g2000cwu.googlegroups.com...
> >
> >> The phrase "ad hominem" is and always has been short for
> >> "argumentum ad hominem". Now argumentum derives from the
> >> verb arguo meaning to show, to argue, to prove, to appeal
> >> (as to reason) and the noun suffix -mentum. Thus it can
> >> mean variously in English a showing, a proof, an appeal,
> >> an argument. Now ad is a simple preposition meaning to.
> >> Finally hominem is the accusative (required by ad) of the
> >> noun homo meaning human. Thus "argumentum ad hominem" is
> >> best translated to English in this context as "appeal to
> >> the human".
> >
> >> In other words, trying to convince or persuade
> >> another *by appealing to their human nature*.
> >
> > How else ? (rhetorical)

> Reason? (not rhetorical)

Isn't persuading by reason an "appeal to their human nature" ? Received on Mon Jun 12 2006 - 08:36:28 CDT

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