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Home -> Community -> Usenet -> comp.databases.theory -> Re: Operationalize orthogonality
mAsterdam wrote:
> J M Davitt wrote: >
> > > Yes. Operationalizing the type orthogonality means isolating > the type base such that the RDBMS only 'has' the minimum about > types it /needs/, everything else would require the type base > to be in charge. The RDBMS would need the type base to include > "the mechanism whereby other types and operators can be defined", > no? >
> > > That these are still defined ad > hoc (if they are defined at all) > in many places is a sign of > immaturity of our industry, IMO. >
> > > In the orthogonal system we are discussing right now this > expectation would not be appropriately directed. > It should be redirected to the type base.
You're absolutely right. The only things I suspect we could reasonably expect a product to get right are some variety of characters and integers. But I didn't want to belabor the point that one man's primitives are another's poison.
[BTW: I'm glad to see that you weren't gone too long.]
>> But it could well be that a user
>> would want to define a numeric type that did arithmetic a bit
>> differently than they way you were probably taught in school. My
>> running example is that proposed by Iverson and made manifest in APL
>> and J: any value divided by itself is 1 - including "zero divided by
>> zero." Rationals are considered equal if they're close to each other.
>> How close? There's an epsilon value - commonly called fuzz - that
>> specifies closeness.
>>
>> At a "higher" level, consider states: we all recognize that TX and Texas
>> and Tex. are the same value, right? (I'm not talking about the sequence
>> of characters -- I'm talking about what they represent.) An RDMS
>> should provide a mechanism whereby a user can define a STATE type which
>> happens to know that all these are acceptable representations of the
>> same value.
>>
Received on Sun Jun 04 2006 - 14:05:12 CDT
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