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Home -> Community -> Usenet -> comp.databases.theory -> Re: Operationalize orthogonality
x wrote:
> mAsterdam wrote:
>
>>Tony D wrote: >> >> > ... the relational model is orthogonal to type. That >> > means the relational model makes no demands and imposes no >> > restrictions on the types available (apart from the >> > obvious requirement for a boolean type).
With a demarcated type base the equality need not only be defined, but also communicated/shared between the TB (type base) and (the rest of?) the DBMS. So it seems the DBMS and the TB at least need a common language for specifying and implementing operators.
> - the values can be denoted in the "relational" language
>
>>What would the requirements for a dbms be to have >>this orthogonality implemented?
>>ISTM the dbms should not have native types >>(except boolean and maybe type generators >>like relation() and attribute() ) but instead >>rely on a lower level, external to the dbms, >>type system.
Yes (I used the term 'demarcated').
> That interface is then a set of requirements.
A protocol.
>>This poses the next question: what would >>be the requirements for this type system?
Good question :-)
The users of the type system.
Which categories of users do we see?
The end-users of course would be the same as the end-users of the applications and the database.
The database (via a hypothetical dbms conforming to the protocol).
The aplication (via a language/app framework conforming to the protocol).
Am I forgetting users?
Both the application and the database would need some form of garantuee (thinking of 'leases' like in DHCP, but longer term) that a used type will remain valid. Received on Sun Jun 04 2006 - 05:52:43 CDT
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