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Home -> Community -> Usenet -> comp.databases.theory -> Re: The naive test for equality
"Paul" <paul_at_test.com> wrote in message
news:42f4cf30$0$91514$ed2e19e4_at_ptn-nntp-reader04.plus.net...
> vc wrote:
>>> <Paul> wrote: >>> "well, the equivalence class can be thought of as a set of possible >>> representations for the "value" that "is" the equivalence class " >> >> I do not see how 'possible representations' (whatever they are), or >> 'literals', are relevant to the simple notion of equivalence class. >
>
>
As I wrote before, the commonly accepted terminology is to call the integer pairs (5,10), (1,2), (2,4), (3,4) members of the same equivalence class, or sometimes *representatives* of the same equivalence class. Why you insists on using your private vocabulary [representations], rather than the straigtforward and unambiguos "pairs of integers" is a complete mystery to me. Whether one prefers to use the (5,10) pair or the (1,2) pair is dictated solely by convenience.
>
As I said, it just does not matter which specific member of the equivalence class you pick. Sometimes 0.5 (5, 10) is more convenient. sometimes (1,2) is more preferable.
>
>
To rephrase it correctly, the equivalence relation for pairs of integers (where the second component must be non-zero) defines the equality relation between the equivalence classes (sort of obvious).
.>But clearly at the level of marks on paper or bytes on a
> computer they are different.
Who cares, at the logical level, about the specific language (marks on paper) or specific implementation (bytes) ?
> So something can be
> equal at the logical level but different at the physical level.
OK, so what ?
>
There is not much substantial difference.
>
> Paul.
Received on Sun Aug 07 2005 - 21:47:54 CDT
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