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Home -> Community -> Usenet -> comp.databases.theory -> Re: Normalisation
Jon Heggland wrote:
> In article <PwBye.138032$Nn7.7012386_at_phobos.telenet-ops.be>,
> jan.hidders_at_REMOVETHIS.pandora.be says...
>
>>>How does a set domain (e.g. the domain of sets of integers) violate >>>this? For definiteness, let's associate the normal set operations with >>>it---union, intersection, subset, cardinality and so on. >> >>By itself it doesn't. Until you start introducing operations that treat >>it as non-atomic. Then it does.
No.
>>>How does that help with normalisation? >> >>Since it defines atomicity it tells you when you are in 1NF or not. Just >>to be clear on this, I regard this discussion separate from the question >>whether you actually *should* be in 1NF or not.
Don't worry. I do believe that relations should preferrably be in this 1NF, but I think we should not do too many things at the same time and first make sure we agree on what it exactly says.
>>>And how can you say a priori that >>>a relvar with a set-valued attribute is not in 1NF, if that depends on >>>the operators of a particular DBMS? >> >>You cannot.
Good point. I'm making the silent assumption here that if you allow nested relations, then you probably also have the nest/unnest relations as are usually found in the nested relational algebra. If you don't have those then you are arguably treating it more as an atomic value than a set value.
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