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VC wrote:
> > "alex goldman" <hello_at_spamm.er> wrote in message > news:2040780.qLjtXq1iaR_at_yahoo.com...
> > 1. It's been know , at least since Russel's times, that any FOL formula > with function symbols > can be translated to an equivalent FOL formula without function symbols. > The Horn subset however cannot. > > 2. Are you familiar with the notion of "argumentum ad verecundiam " ?
Let me get this straight. Because you don't grasp the fundamentals, I have to reproduce all theories, proofs, etc. right here, without referencing any papers by others? I have never seen such idiocy. (Actually, HERC comes to mind, but he has a medical condition)
You wrote: "FOL can get rid of function symbols and be as expressive as with them"
Abiteboul & Vianu write: "[FOL without function symbols] has limited expressive power. For instance, it cannot compute the transitive closure of a graph"
How more explicit do you need the proof that you don't know what the hell you are talking about? (Rhetoric question, you are just a troll, after all) Received on Wed May 18 2005 - 11:23:32 CDT
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