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Home -> Community -> Usenet -> comp.databases.theory -> Re: 1GB Tables as Classes, or Tables as Types, and all that refuted
"Jan Hidders" <jan.hidders_at_REMOVETHIS.pandora.be> wrote in message
news:AJ6pd.34550$0d1.1769598_at_phobos.telenet-ops.be...
> Alfredo Novoa wrote:
> > On Wed, 24 Nov 2004 19:52:30 +0100, "Ja Lar" <ingen_at_mail.her> wrote:
> >
> >
> >>So the set of values specified by the type is (in this case) a set of
> >>relations.
> >
> >
> > Indeed.
> >
> >
> >>But the set of values that a relation is ("contains") cannot be mapped
to
> >>the set of values that a type is ("contains")
> >
> >
> > They can be mapped but then you are not mapping a relation to a type,
> > you are mapping the values contained in the tuples of a relation to
> > the values of a type. This is a value to value mapping.
> >
> >
> >>, ie. "a relation cannot be a
> >>type", if I understand you right ?
> >
> >
> > This is true, but this is not the same as you said above.
>
>
> Just out of curiosity, Leandro, are you seriously contending that DBMSs
> that treat relational variables as types are making a fundamental
> mistake because by definition relational variables and types are
> distinct in the sense that something cannot be both at the same time?
>
> I simply cannot believe that you do not see what is problematic about
> this type of argument. Seriously.
I'm trying to catch up and thought perhaps someone could answer these two questions --
Thanks in advance for helping me catch up. Cheers! --dawn Received on Mon Nov 29 2004 - 16:44:44 CST
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