Re: In an RDBMS, what does "Data" mean?

From: Paul <paul_at_test.com>
Date: Thu, 17 Jun 2004 00:09:28 +0100
Message-ID: <bq4Ac.16001$NK4.2656505@stones.force9.net>

Dawn M. Wolthuis wrote:

>>>>Does the finiteness of relational databases make Godel's completeness
>>>>theorem irrelevant in that context?
>>>
>>>There are many reasons that make that theorem irrelevant in the
>>>database context.
>>
>>Such as...?

>
> If there is a clear list of the axioms from which relational theory stem,
> that might help answer such a question. Is there such a list?

I'm not thinking of applying it using relational theory as the "theory" part of Godel's completeness theorem. Relational theory would be the "first order logic" part. Then *within* that you have other "theories" and "models" you construct to talk about.

Actually to answer my own question I think whether or not they are finite is a bit of a red herring. Possibly there may be an easier proof of a weaker version of the theorem for the finite case, but the actual theorem itself isn't that complex anyway so it's a bit irrelevant.

Paul. Received on Wed Jun 16 2004 - 18:09:28 CDT