equivalence of functional dependencies

FD has been bugging me for a month now,

F = {A -> BC, A -> D, CD -> E}
G = {A -> BCE, A -> ABD, CD -> E} I have been told that the sets of functional dependencies above are equivalent, can anybody explain to me how I can come to this conclusion step by step,

I understand that armstrong's axioms are used to come to the conclusion, I have seen these axioms written down,

please use another example if you are in fear of doing 'homework'

thx

Shannon Received on Mon Jan 05 2004 - 17:27:43 CST