Date: Mon, 10 Sep 2001 22:18:06 +0100
I have the following interesting question concerning database
Please consider the following scenario:
Database A is an OLTP type of database which is of course "normalized".
Whilst database B is a read-only database which takes its data on an
from database A in an incremental manner.
My question then is, given database B is read-only, is there anything to
by normalizing this database?
My own view is that it is better to actually denormalize database B in
relation to A
so as to improve performance by arranging data in a way that it is most often likely
to be queried. Naturally, the migration of data from A->B is then slightly more
involved and voluminous. But, apart from that I can not see any downsides.
I'd be very interested to hear what other perspectives people have in
If possible, please CC your replies to me as well as posting to this NG.
Naran Hirani Received on Mon Sep 10 2001 - 23:18:06 CEST