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Re: Timezone Problem

From: Robert Klemme <bob.news_at_gmx.net>
Date: Tue, 20 Dec 2005 17:43:45 +0100
Message-ID: <40qqm6F1c2fqbU1@individual.net>


Andy Hassall wrote:
> On Tue, 20 Dec 2005 16:12:56 +0100, "Robert Klemme"
> <bob.news_at_gmx.net> wrote:
>
>> Björn Wächter wrote:
>>>
>>> - GMT is UTC so the offset is 0
>>> - US/Eastern is in the west of London (UTC) so the result is
>>> negative
>>> - Berlin is in the East of London(UTC) so the result is positive
>>> - GMT+1 has a result of -01:00 but this indicates it is 1 hour in
>>> the west of London like Atlantic/Azores. But GMT+1 is the
>>> Timezone of Berlin. The Timezone of the Azores is GMT-1.
>>> See:
>>> http://www.timeanddate.com/worldclock/city.html?n=271
>>>
>>> So why Is the offset of the Azores and GMT+1 the same?
>>
>> We ran into this just the other day. Although I can't back this with
>> evidence here's our theory: we guess there is an old naming
>> convention that used GMT+n to denote a time zone that is n hours
>> after GMT.
>
> Yes, it's the POSIX standard that defines this:
>
> http://www.opengroup.org/onlinepubs/009695399/basedefs/xbd_chap08.html
>
> See the definition of the "TZ" variable, and look at "offset".

It's the other direction:

"offset Indicates the value added to the local time to arrive at Coordinated Universal Time."

Thanks for that reference! My search did not turn this up.

Kind regards

    robert Received on Tue Dec 20 2005 - 10:43:45 CST

Original text of this message

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