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RE: what is obj$.type#=10?

From: Jacques Kilchoer <Jacques.Kilchoer_at_quest.com>
Date: Wed, 23 Jun 2004 14:18:17 -0700
Message-ID: <B5C5F99D765BB744B54FFDF35F60262109F87924@irvmbxw02>


I'm going to answer Mr. Shamsudeen, Mr. Lewis and Mr. Bobak at once.

Mr. Bobak and Mr. Shamsudeen - yes, I understand why a type# =3D 10 = object
is created in a schema when the schema contains a stored procedure depending on a public synonym (the type# 10 object will have the same name as the public synonym). The object is created to allow invalidation of the stored procedure in case I create an object in the schema, and the object has the same name as the public synonym.

My question was, when I create a public synonym THAT WAS NEVER USED by any stored procedure or other PL/SQL object, why a type# =3D 10 object with the same name remained AFTER I dropped the public synonym? (Of course a little thought on my part would have given me the answer to this question since I mentioned this behaviour yesterday.)

Mr. Lewis's answer referred me to his original comment to the list
(several months ago), which I repeated only yesterday, and which was the
obvious answer to my new question from today: when you drop some objects
(not only synonyms - at least, in the past, this was valid for other
object types besides synonyms), a row remains in obj$ with type# =3D 10. Mr. Lewis says "I don't have any idea at present why Oracle does this.", but the theory I had heard a while ago on the list is: Oracle does this so that Oracle doesn't waste too many object ids when running installation scripts, that have many "drop object" statements immediately followed by a "create object" statement.



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Received on Wed Jun 23 2004 - 16:15:17 CDT

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