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Yes, it is possible.
Database SQL Reference

For instance:

CREATE TABLE TABLE2
(
  E ...,
  F ...,
  G ...,
  H ...,
  FOREIGN KEY (G) REFERENCES TABLE1 (C),
  FOREIGN KEY (H) REFERENCES TABLE1 (C)
);

You ask "is it possible"?

What would be the cost of trying it for yourself? Never be afraid to test. You'll learn more, learn better, and quite possibly get your answer faster than waiting on a forum participant that lives 12 time zones away from you.

Hi,

I have a doubt: having to create two tables
TABLE1 (A,B,C) AND TABLE2(E,F,G,H), is it possible to define for the TABLE2 (two columns G,H of table2 having for foreign key the same column C of talbe1)?
CREATE TABLE TABLE2
(
E ...,
F ...,
G ...INT,
H ... INT,
FOREIGN KEY (G, H)
REFERENCES TABLE1 (C)
);

Thanks a lot

TT

ttornado wrote on Wed, 02 September 2020 04:54

Hi,

I have a doubt: having to create two tables
TABLE1 (A,B,C) AND TABLE2(E,F,G,H), is it possible to define for the TABLE2 (two columns G,H of table2 having for foreign key the same column C of talbe1)?
CREATE TABLE TABLE2
(
E ...,
F ...,
G ...INT,
H ... INT,
FOREIGN KEY (G, H)
REFERENCES TABLE1 (C)
);

Thanks a lot

TT

Is it possible?
What happened when you tried it for yourself?

Though, ttornado & Michel share the same time zone. Me too. You, Ed, don't. Are you feeling lonely?